Daily Quiz-140
MCQs based on DNA matching
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Q1. In the context of DNA profiling, which of the following best describes the role of Short Tandem Repeats (STRs)?
A. STRs are sequences that encode unique proteins responsible for individual identity.
B. STRs are repetitive sequences in the genome that differ in length between individuals and are used to generate a DNA profile.
C. STRs are virus-derived genetic insertions used to trace evolutionary ancestry.
D. STRs refer to mutations that cause genetic disorders and are detected during profiling.
Q2. Consider the following statements about DNA matching in forensic science:
1. It can be used to exonerate individuals wrongly accused of a crime.
2. It requires the use of capillary electrophoresis to detect mitochondrial DNA variations.
3. It is effective even if DNA is partially degraded or mixed with other samples.
4. The results of DNA matching are admissible in Indian courts without any legal protocol.
Which of the statements are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 4 only
D. All of the above
Q3. Which of the following best differentiates body identification from criminal DNA identification in forensic contexts?
A. DNA markers used are different for dead bodies and for criminals.
B. Body identification always requires international DNA databases.
C. Body identification uses kinship comparison, while criminal cases use suspect or database matching.
D. Criminal cases only require blood samples, whereas body identification only requires teeth.
Q4. The National DNA Data Bank (NDNADB) proposed in India aims to:
1. Store profiles of criminals, suspects, and missing persons
2. Allow open access to DNA profiles for academic and public research
3. Assist in identification during natural disasters or mass fatalities
4. Provide a national-level legal framework for DNA profiling in civil and criminal matters
Which of the statements are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 3, and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
Q5. In which of the following scenarios is DNA matching least likely to produce a conclusive result?
A. A recent crime scene with blood sample on a weapon
B. Burnt body remains from a plane crash
C. A paternity dispute involving both child and alleged father’s samples
D. Hair follicle samples from a fresh abduction case
Answers Quiz- 139 (June 25)
1. B. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Reverse transcriptase inhibition is the mechanism of TDF/FTC; Lenacapavir is a capsid inhibitor.
• Statement 2 is correct: It is approved for heavily treatment-experienced patients.
• Statement 3 is correct: Capsid protein is the drug’s target.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: Oral formulation is still available, especially in combination therapy and during initiation.
2. C. Its long-acting injectable form offers protection for up to 6 months, improving adherence.
Explanation:
• The major advantage is long-acting injectable PrEP, addressing adherence challenges.
• A and D are incorrect: Lenacapavir does not cure HIV or eliminate reservoirs; it is not used as monotherapy.
• B is incorrect: Oral administration is daily, not weekly, and not the primary innovation.
3. B. 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: PrEP is not yet universal in India; it is in select pilot areas.
• Statement 2 is correct: TDF FTC (Truvada) is the common PrEP combo.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Injectable PrEP is under trial, not public rollout yet.
• Statement 4 is correct: NACO piloted PrEP in 2021 in select cities.
4. D. By inhibiting the reverse transcription process, thus preventing viral replication in initial stages
Explanation:
• TDF/FTC (PrEP drugs) are reverse transcriptase inhibitors.
• They act before the virus can replicate in host cells.
• Option A is incorrect: PrEP does not destroy virus post-exposure – that is the role of PEP.
• Option B: PrEP is not a vaccine.
• Option C is irrelevant – inhibition occurs before integration.
5. C. All of the above
Explanation:
All listed are valid concerns:
• Long-acting injectables like Lenacapavir may require special storage, unlike oral PrEP.
• Regulatory bottlenecks delay approval in national programs.
• Patent and pricing issues can limit affordability.
• Stigma remains a key barrier to access and awareness in public health settings.
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