General Studies Mock Test II

Time: Two hours

1. Which of the following is incorrect about Pusa Hydrogel?

a. it is a semi-synthetic super absorbent polymer

b. during dry period, it’ll release the water for plants

c. Pusa Hydrogel is in use since 2001

d. it can retain water about 300 times its dry weight

2. Which of the following is/are correct about Khoya Paya Web Portal?

a. it is a citizen based website to exchange information on missing and found children

b. it is developed by Ministry of Women and Child Development and Deity

c. both of these

d. none of these

3. Which of the following is incorrect about National Commission for Scheduled Castes?

a. it’s a statutory body

b. it is established to promote and protect the social, educational, economic and cultural interests of the community

c. the set-up of the Commission of 1978 underwent change in 1987 and it was named as National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

d. it presents biannual report to the PM

4. Which of the following is false about IAP Health Phone Programme?

a. it is the world's largest digital mass education programme to address malnutrition in women and children

b. it’s a public-private partnership initiative

c. Bollywood actress Aishwarya Rai is its support partner and brand ambassador

d. it is supported by Vodafone India

5. The nodal agency for implementing Bharat Bill Payment System?

a. Finance Ministry b. RBI

c. Post Office Network d. NPCI

6. Which of the following is correct about PSLV?

a. it can carry up to 2,500 kg satellite

b. it is used for launching INSAT

c. PSLV-XL was used to launch Chandrayaan and RISAT

d. all of these

7. Tripartite struggle was for what and by whom...

a. Kanauj: Gurjara-Pratihara, Rashtrakuta & Pala

b. Tanjore: Chera, Chola and Pandya

c. Madurai: Chera, Chola and Rashtrakuta

d. none of these

8. What are the precautions to be observed while reading a clinical thermometer?

i. hold the thermometer by the bulb while reading it

ii. it should be washed before and after use

iii. ensure that before using it the mercury level is below 35 degree Celsius

a. i and ii only b. ii and iii only

c. i, ii and iii d. i and iii only

9. Which of the following is incorrect?

a. Ox bow lakes are found in deserts

b. Meanders are found in river valleys

c. flood plain is not a depositional feature of a glacier

d. beach is not an erosional feature of sea waves

10. Arrange the BRICS countries according to their geographical size (smaller to larger)

a. South Africa - India - Brazil - China - Russia

b. South Africa - India - Brazil - Russia - China

c. South Africa - Brazil - India - Russia - China

d. South Africa - Brazil - India - China - Russia

11. Which of the following is/are true about Bhimbaitaka Caves?

a. Located between Hoshangabad and Bhopal, in the foothills of the Vindhyan Mountains on the southern edge of the central Indian plateau

b. Most paintings are from Mesolithic era

c. The painted caves are more than 400 in number and spread over an area often square kilometers

d. all of these

12. Which of the following is correct?

i. Murals are large works executed on the walls of solid structures, as in the Ajanta Caves and the Kailashnath Temple

ii. Miniature paintings are executed on a very small scale for books or albums on perishable material such as paper and cloth

iii. Fresco is a technique of mural painting executed upon freshly laid lime plaster

a. i and ii only b. ii and iii only

c. i and iii only d. i, ii and iii

13. Which of the following is/are correct?

a. ESSO has three major branches of earth sciences viz (i) Ocean Science & Technology (ii) Atmospheric Science & Technology and (iii) Geoscience and Technology

b. ESSO has launched the Monsoon Mission for improving the predictability of the Indian Monsoon

c. both of these

d. none of these

14. Which among the following is the theme of World Environment Day-2015?

a. Give Earth a Chance

b. Our Earth, Our Habitat, Our Home

c. Seven Billion Dreams, One Planet, Consume with Care

d. Forests: Nature at your Service

15. Government of India has launched Modified Special Incentive Proposal Scheme (M-SIPS) for which of the following sectors?

a. Textile sector b. Electronic sector

c. Automobile sector d. Agriculture sector

16. What are merit goods?

a. public goods where social benefit is more than individual benefit

b. public goods which are used for individual benefits and profit

c. goods which are exported for profits

d. none of these

17. Which of the following is correct?

a. GDP (market price) = GDP (factor cost) indirect taxes subsidies

b. GDP (market price) = GDP (factor cost) - indirect taxes subsidies

c. GDP (factor cost) = GDP (market price) indirect taxes subsidies

d. GDP (factor cost) = GDP (market price) - indirect taxes subsidies

18. Azolla is used as bio fertilizer because it...

a. Multiplies very fast to produce massive biomass

b. Has association of nitrogen fixing Rhizobium

c. Has association of nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria

d. Has association of mycorrhiza

19. Which of following is correct statement about the Ozone?

a. Ozone in troposphere is good for breathing

b. Ozone in troposphere is not good for breathing

c. Ozone is present only in troposphere

d. All of the above

20. Contamination of radioactive materials are dangerous because it caused...

a. biological magnification

b. gene mutation

c. photochemical smog

d. ozone destruction

21. Duncan Passage is located between...

a. South and Little Andaman

b. Little and Great Nicobar

c. North and Middle Andaman

d. Middle and South Andaman

22. At high altitudes, pressure cooker is preferable for cooking, because the boiling point of water...

a. reduces, due to higher atmospheric pressure

b. reduces, due to lower atmospheric pressure

c. increases due to reduced gravitational force

d. reduces due to increased ozone content in the atmosphere

23. An earthquake's epicentre is the...

a. point where the seismograph is located

b. point within the Earth where the movement along the fault occurs

c. approximate centre of a group of related earthquakes

d. point on the surface directly above where the rupture along the fault zone occurs

24. Which one of the following is the reason due to which the wind in the southern hemisphere is deflected towards left?

a. Difference in the water content of northern and southern hemispheres

b. Temperature variations

c. Difference in pressure

d. Rotation of the Earth

25. `White goods' include...

a. stainless steel and aluminium utensils

b. milk and milk products

c. items purchased for conspicuous consumption

d. soaps, detergents and other mass consumption goods

26. Coke is one of the materials of the charge added to blast furnace for the production of steel/iron. Its function is to...

i. act as a reducing agent.

ii. Remove silica associated with the iron ore

iii. Function as fuel, to supply heat.

iv. Act as an oxidizing agent.

a. i and ii b. ii and iv

c. i and iii d. iii and iv

27. A consumer is said to be in equilibrium, if...

a. he is able to fulfil his need with a given level of income

b. he is able to live in full comforts with a given level of income

c. he can fulfil his needs without consumption of certain items

d. he is able to locate new sources of income

28. Consider the following regarding asteroids.

i. Asteroids are rocky debris of varying sizes orbiting the Sun.

ii. Most of the asteroids are small but some have diameter as large as 1000 km

iii. The orbit of asteroids lies between orbits of Jupiter and Saturn.

Which of these statements are correct?

a. i and iii b. ii and iv

c. i and ii d. iii and iv

29. A fuse is used in main electric supply as a safety device. Which one of the following statements about the fuse is correct?

a. It is connected in parallel with main switch

b. It is made mainly from silver alloys

c. It must have a low melting point

d. It must have a very high resistance

30. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I (Disease)          List II(Organism)

A. Malaria                   1. Fungi

B. Poliomyelitis         2. Bacteria

C. Tuberculosis         3. Virus

D. Ringworm            4. Protozoan

A B C D A B C D

a. 4 3 2 1 b. 4 3 1 2

c. 3 4 1 2 d. 1 2 3 4

31. Match List-I with List-II

List-I                           List- II

(Places)                       (Industries)

A. Jamnagar               1.Aluminium

B. Hospet                    2.Wollen Textile

C. Korba                        3.Fertilizers

D. Haldia                       4.Cement

5. Iron and Steel

A B C D A B C D

a. 4 3 1 2 b. 2 5 1 3

c. 4 5 2 1 d. 2 1 4 3

32. 'National e-governance plan' was launched by the government in year 2006 with which of the following intentions?

i. to provide qualitative service of government business to the citizens of India

ii. to promote IT sector in India so that trained IT personnel do not go out of the country for jobs

iii. to keep a vigil on the business transaction of Indian population to avoid illegal transactions

a. only i b. only ii

c. only iii d. i, ii and iii

33. Who is the chairman of the committee that submitted its report on health insurance framework?

a. U K Sinha b. M Ramprasad

c. Girish Lahari d. Kaushik Chandra

34. Which of the following programmes / schemes is not directly related with agriculture activities?

a. Drought Prone Areas Programmes

b. Promotion of Integrated Pest Management

c. Integrated Wastelands Development Prog.

d. ANNAPURNA

35. The "Mahajan Commission" was constituted to look into the border dispute between which two states?

a. Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh

b. Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra

c. Maharashtra and Karnataka

d. Karnataka and Kerala

36. Amnesty International is an organisation associated with which of the following fields?

a. Protection of Cruelty to animals

b. Environment protection

c. Protection of human rights

d. Protection of historic monuments

37. The "Nathu La" mountain passes, which connects the India and China's Tibet autonomous region is in which state?

a. Himachal Pradesh b. Sikkim

c. Arunachal Pradesh d. Uttarakhand

38. The "Sevai Attam", "Oyilattam" and "Karagattam" are the traditional folk dances performed in which of the following states?

a. Kerala b. Andhra Pradesh

c. Tamil Nadu d. Karnataka

39. Andaman and Nicobar islands comes under the jurisdiction of...

a. Circuit bench of Bombay HC at Port Blair

b. Circuit bench of Madras HC at Port Blair

c. Circuit bench of Kolkata HC at Port Blair

d. Circuit bench of the SC at Port Blair

40. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

a. Survey of Flora – BSI (Botanical Survey of India) – 1890

b. Survey of Fauna – Zoological Survey of India – 1916

c. Forest Resources and Survey – Forest Survey of India – 1981

d. Fishery resources in the Indian Territorial Waters – Fishery Survey of India (FSI) – 1983

41. Family type biogas plants is an important programme, because...

i. Reduction in drudgery among the rural women and girls engaged in collection of fuel wood

ii. Reduction in the rate of deforestation

iii. Providing organic fertilizer

a. i and ii only b. ii and iii only

c. i and iii only d. i, ii and iii

42. Production of crude oil was affected in the country due to...

i. Environmental factors and bandhs/blockades in Assam

ii. Delay in production from wells in Andhra Pradesh

iii. Lesser production from wells in Mumbai

iv. Poor influx, underperformance of producing wells and less base potential of major fields that affected production of Ahmedabad and Ankleshwar

a. i and ii only b. ii, iii and iv only

c. i, iii and iv only d. i, ii, iii and iv

43. Assertion (A): India’s natural resources are unevenly distributed in the country

Reason(R): Coal resources are abundant in Northern and North-East region and hydro resources are mainly concentrated in Bihar/Jharkhand, Odisha and West Bengal

a. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation

for A

b. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A

c. A is Correct; But not R

d. R is Correct; But not A

44. Which of the following is/are correct about

Mission Kakatiya?

a. A programme to desilt 46,000 ponds over the next five years in Telangana

b. Name given to power sector reforms in Delhi

c. Programme to uplift women in Haryana

d. None of these

45. The Ordnance Factory Board has 39 factories with two more at Nalanda and Korwa. These places are in the states of...

a. UP & Bihar respectively

b. Bihar & UP respectively

c. Bihar & Maharashtra respectively

d. UP & Maharashtra respectively

46. Which of the following is/are true?

i. Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-IN) is the national nodal agency setup under the Information Technology Act 2013, to respond computer security incidents

ii. National Cyber Security Policy was released in 2000

iii. ‘Chakra’ is a dynamic firewall solution

iv. C-MET (Centre for Materials for Electronics Technology) has three centres at Pune, Hyderabad and Thrissur

a. i and iv only b. iii and iv only

c. ii and iii only d. i, ii, iii and iv

47. Assertion (A): The market price support/ Minimum Support Price and procurement/stockholding of food grains at MSP are a genuine requirement for India

Reason(R): It is important for developing countries to be able to guarantee some minimum returns to their poor farmers so that they are able to produce enough for themselves and for domestic food security

a. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A

b. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A

c. A is Correct; But not R

d. R is Correct; But not A

48. Sahitya Academy has recognized...

a. 20 Languages

b. 24 Languages including English

c. 24 Languages excluding English

d. 28 Languages

49. Salient features of the MPLADS scheme are...

a. MPLADS is a plan scheme fully funded by Government of India

b. The funds released under the scheme are non-lapsable

c. Nominated members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha can recommend works for implementation anywhere in the country

d. If an elected Member of Parliament, finds the need, to contribute MAPLADS funds, to a place outside their State/UT, can recommend eligible works

a. i and ii only b. ii and iii only

c. iii and iv only d. i, ii, iii and iv

50. Kisan Credit Card (KCC) Scheme is in operation throughout the country and is implemented by..

i. Commercial Banks

ii. Cooperative Banks

iii. Regional Rural Banks

a. i and ii only b. ii and iii only

c. i and iii only d. i, ii and iii

51. Which is not true about 2011 census?

a. More female literates added than male literates

b. Most thickly populated state of Bihar is having density of 860 persons / sq. km

c. Child sex ratio declined to 919/1000 male

d. Mizoram is the second in the ranking of literacy among states of India

52. The concept of Sevottam is associated with...

a. Reforms, Performance & Public Grievances

b. Defence & National Security

c. Food & Nutrition

d. None of the above

53. Advanced sunrise and delayed sun- set found in the sky are due to the phenomenon of...

a. diffraction of sunlight

b. refraction of sunlight

c. scattering of sunlight

d. total internal reflection of sun-light

54. Assertion: When a piece of brick lying on grass for a number of days is removed, the covered part of the grass appears pale

Reason: Synthesis of chlorophyll, which gives green pigment, occurs in presence of sunlight.

a. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A

b. A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation for A

c. A is correct; But not R

d. R is correct; But not A

55. Diamond Ring, God’s Eye and Baily’s Beads are the parts of phenomenon...

a. Aurora b. Solar eclipse

c. Lightning d. Solar storm

56. The Basel Convention on the ‘’Control of Trans boundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal’’, usually known as the Basel Convention. Which of the following is/are correct about it?

a. It is an international treaty that was designed to reduce the movements of hazardous wastes from developed to less developed countries

b. It does not address the movement of radioactive waste

c Both of these d. None of these

57. If the Arctic Ice was somehow replaced with dense forest, which of the following situation may arise...

a. It will accelerate Global Warming

b. It will decelerate Global Warming

c. It may or may not affect Global warming

d. It will have no affect on Global Warming

58. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Hepatitis (A, B, C, D & E)?

i. Hepatitis is the inflation of Liver due to viral infection

ii. Hepatitis B vaccine is enough to keep type D at bay

iii. Type B & C are mainly transmitted through blood transfusion

iv. Type A & E are caused due to exposure to polluted food and water

a. i, iii and iv only b. i, ii and iii only

c. i, ii and iv only d. i, ii, iii and iv

59. Pyrolysis/Gasification is a process of chemical decomposition of Organic matter through heat. The organic matter is heated in the absence of air till it breaks down to smaller molecules of gas. The gas is known as Producer Gas – Constituents of this gas are...

i. Carbon Dioxide ii. Carbon monoxide

iii. Nitrogen iv. Hydrogen

v. Sulphur dioxide vi. Ammonia

a. i, ii, iii and iv only b. i, ii, v and vi only

c. iii, iv, v and vi only d. i, ii, iii, iv, v and vi

60. The targets for the first commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol cover emissions of the six main greenhouse gases, which of the following gas is not one of these?

a. Carbontetrachloride (CTC)

b. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)

c. Perfluorocarbons (PFCs)

d. Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6)

61. Which of the following Indian Biosphere Reserves have been included in the World network of Biosphere reserves under the Man Biosphere programme of UNESCO?

i. Simplipal Biosphere Reserve

ii. Achanakmar – Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve

iii. Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve

iv. Western Ghats

a. i, ii and iv only b. i and iii only

c. 1, ii, iii and iv d. i, ii and iii only

62. For the purpose of coastal regulation, Coastal regulation Zone 2011 notification states that the coastal zone is...

i. 500 m on the landward side from high tide line

ii. 500 m on the landward side from low tide line

iii. 12 nautical miles on the seaward side from the high tide line

iv. 12 nautical miles on the seaward side from the low tide line

a. ii and iv only b. i and iii only

c. i and iv only d. ii and iii only

63. Which of the following statements with regard to type 1 and type 2 diabetes is incorrect?

a. The onset of type 1 is sudden whereas onset of type 2 is gradual

b. Type 2 is more common than type 1. Type 1 mostly affects children whereas type 2 mostly affects adults

c. In type 2, the body stops producing insulin

d. The onset of type 2 is primarily due to lifestyle reasons whereas the onset of type 1 is unrelated to lifestyle

64. Which one among the following is the correct sequence of the rivers from north to south ?

a.Damodar-Brahmani-Mahanadi-Tungabhadra

b. Damodar-Mahanadi-Brahmani-Tungabhadra

c. Brahmani-Tungabhadra-Damodar-Mahanadi

d. Damodar-Brahmani-Tungabhadra-Mahanadi.

65. Consider the following sanctuaries:

i. Periyar ii. Dachigam

iii. Sariska iv. Kanha

Which one among the following is the correct sequence of location of the above sanctuaries from south to north?

a. i-iv-ii-iii b. iv-i-iii-ii

c. i-iv-iii-ii d. iii-i-iv-ii

66. Mark the incorrect statement.

a. Shillong Plateau is an outlier of Peninsular Plateau of India

b. Aravalli is the oldest mountain chain in India

c. Vindhyas are fold mountains

d. Rajmahal Highlands are composed of lava deposits

67. Which of the following is/are direct source(s) of information about the interior of the earth?

i. Earthquake wave ii. Volcano

iii. Gravitational force iv. Earth magnetism

a. i and ii only b. ii only

c. iii and iv only d. i, ii, iii and iv

68. Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?

i. They are generally red in colour

ii. They are rich in nitrogen and potash

iii. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP

iv. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils

a. i, ii and iii b. ii, iii and iv

c. i and iv d. ii and iii only

69. In India, mergers and acquisition of firms are regulated by...

a. National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council

b. Competition Commission of India

c. Security and Exchange Board of India

d. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion

70. Corporation tax in India is levied on income of a company. Which one of the following does not include corporation tax?

a. Profit from business

b. Capital gain

c. Interest on securities

d. Sale proceed of assets

71. The rate of inflation in India is measured generally in respect of movement of...

a. consumer price index

b. wholesale price index

c. cost of living index for agricultural labour

d. money supply

72. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the convertibility of Indian rupee?

a. It is convertible on capital account

b. It is convertible on current account

c. It is convertible both on current and capital account

d. None of the above

73. Which of the following statements about the scheme ‘Roshni’ launched by the Ministry of Rural Development in June 2013 is/are correct?

a. The scheme is supposed to provide training and employment to youth in the age group of 10 to 35 years

b. 50% of the beneficiaries of the scheme will be women

c. It is a 100% Central Government funded scheme

d. all of these

74. Statement I : Ashoka called the Third Buddhist Council in 252 BC at Pataliputra and it was there that the Buddhist became divided into two sects—the Hinayana and the Mahayana.

Statement II : Kanishka called the Fourth Buddhist Council at Kundalvana near Srinagar and Vasumitra was believed to have acted as President.

a. Both statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

b. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

c. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

d. Statement I is false but statement II is true

75. Statement I: The Jajmani system was one in which the village artisans supplied traditionally fixed quantities of their products to peasant families in return for shares in the harvest.

Statement II : The Jajmani system was a system of the Jotedars (rich farmers) and the Bargadars (sharecroppers).

a. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

b. Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I

c. Statement I is true but statement II is false

d. Statement I is false but statement II is true

76. Akbar’s Ibadat Khana was the place where...

a. military strategy was decided

b. inter-faith debates and discussions were held

c. Akbar preached his principles of Sulh-i-lad

d. fine arts were practiced

77. Separate electorates for representation of Indian Christians and Anglo-Indians were created under the...

a. Indian Councils Act, 1861

b. Government of India Act, 1909

c. Government of India Act, 1919

d. Government of India Act, 1935

78. Which of the below is/are correct?

i. The Jains believed that Mahavira had twenty-three predecessors

ii. Parshvanatha was twenty-third Tirthankara

iii. Rishava was immediate successor of Mahavira

a. i and ii only b. ii and iii only

c. i and iii only d. i, ii and iii

79. Which one of the following statements about ancient Indian Mahajanapadas is correct?

a. All Mahajanapadas were­ oligarchies where power was exercised by a group of people

b. All Mahajanapadas were located in eastern India

c. No army was maintained by the Mahajanapadas

d. Buddhist and Jaina texts list sixteen Mahajanapadas

80. Which of the following statements about Sher Shah’s administration is/are correct?

a. He divided his empire into Sarkars; which were further subdivided into Parganas

b. The Sarkars and the Parganas were directly administered by Sher Shah without the help of any other officials

c. both of these

d. none of these

81. The social ideals of Mahatma Gandhi were first put forth in...

a. Hind Swaraj

b. An Autobiography — The Story of My Experiments with Truth

c. History of the Satyagraha in South Africa

d. The Bhagavad Gita According to Gandhi

82. Which among the following was the reason of the resignations of the Indian ministers in all the provinces in the year 1939?

a. Governors refused to act as constitutional heads

b. The Centre did not provide the required financial help to provinces

c. The Governor-General converted Indian administration from federal to unitary one because of the beginning of the Second World War

d. India was declared a party to the Second World War without the consent of the provincial governments

83. Which one among the following was not a proposal of the Cabinet Mission, 1946?

a. The Constituent Assembly was to be constituted on the democratic principle of population strength

b. Provision for Indian Union of Provinces and States

c. All the members of the Constituent Assembly were to be Indians

d. British Government was to supervise the affairs of the Constituent Assembly

84. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

a. ‘Bijak’ is a composition of teachings of Dadu Dayal

b. The Philosophy of Pushti Marg was propounded by Madhvacharya

c. both of these

d. none of these

85. A community of people called Manganiyars is well-known for their...

a. martial arts in North-East India

b. musical tradition in North-West India

c. classical vocal music in South India

d. pietra dura tradition in Central India

86. The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until...

a. the First World War when Indian troops were needed by the British and the partition was ended.

b. King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act at the Royal Darbar in Delhi in 1911

c. Gandhi launched Civil Disobedience Movement

d. the Partition of India, in 1947 when East Bengal became East Pakistan

87. The 1929 Session of Indian, National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the...

a. attainment of Self-Government was declared as the objective of the Congress

b. attainment of Poorna Swaraj Was adopted as the goal of the Congress

c. Non-Cooperation Movement was launched

d. decision to participate in the Round Table Conference in London was taken

88. An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates that the...

a. market rate of interest is likely to fall

b. Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks

c. Central Bank is following an easy money policy

d. Central Bank is following a tight money policy

89. Which among the below mentioned Upper Palaeolithic places in India is wrongly matched with the state it is located in?

a. Bhimbetka, Madhya Pradesh

b. Betamcherla, Andhra Pradesh

c. Inamgaon, Maharashtra

d. Singh Bhumi, Himachal Pradesh

90. In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called ‘Tribhanga’ has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?

a. One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck

b. Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic characters

c. Movements of body, face and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story

d. A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasised to express the feelings of love or eroticism

91. In which of the following case/s the six rights guaranteed by article 19 can be suspended?

i. External Aggression ii. Internal Emergency

iii. When Martial Law is in force

a. i only b. ii and iii only

c. i and iii only d. i, ii and iii

92. Which of the following writs can be issued against administrative authorities?

a. Prohibition, Certiorari & Mandamus

b. Certiorari & Mandamus

c. Prohibition & Mandamus

d. Prohibition & Certiorari

93. The emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of Governor can be altered by...

a. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by simple majority of Parliament

b. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by

special majority of Parliament

c. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by

special majority of the Parliament and ratified by half of the state legislatures

d. By a normal legislative process that does not require Constitutional Amendment

94. What is Lorenz curve?

a. it shows the cumulative share of market size on one axis and cumulative percentage of number of firms in the market on the other side

b. a model of the delayed effects of devaluation on the balance of trade

c. a graph representing the relationship of population growth and unemployment

d. none of these

95. When the offices of both Speaker and Deputy Speaker falls vacant...

a. Members of LS immediately elect a Speaker

b. The senior most willing member of Lok Sabha becomes the speaker

c. The President appoints any member of Lok Sabha as speaker

d. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over till the next speaker is elected

96. Which case determined that the Preamble is a part of the constitution...

a. Berubari Union case

b. Kesavananda Bharati case

c. Golaknath case d. Minerva Mills case

97. A minister who is not a member of either house (Note: A person can remain a minister for six months, without being a member of either House of Parliament)...

a. Can participate in proceedings of Lok Sabha only

b. Can participate in proceedings of Rajya Sabha only

c. Can participate in the proceedings of either house of Parliament

d. Cannot participate till he becomes a Member of either house of Parliament

98. When in a bicameral legislature, an ordinary bill, which has originated in the assembly is rejected by the council...

a. Will be considered in a joint sitting to resolve the disagreement.

b. The assembly can override the council by passing the bill for the second time with or without any amendments

c. The council does not have power to reject any bill that has originated in the assembly and hence the bill is deemed to have passed

d. The bill ends and becomes dead

99. Chief Justice of High court is appointed by...

a. The President after consultation with the CJI.

b. The President after consultation with the CJI & Governor of state

c. The Governor on the recommendation of

President who in turn consults the CJI

d. The President after consultation with the Governor of the state & a collegium of two very senior SC judges headed by CJI

100. At the time of enactment of constitution, the provisions which enabled a secular state were...

a. Preamble, Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy

b. Fundamental Rights and DPSPs

c. Fundamental Rights only

d. Directive Principles of State Policy only